a. the tarsal plate is a continuation of the orbital
septum
b. the meibomian glands secrete mucin rich secretion
c. the orifices of the meibomian glands are anterior
to the root of eyelashes
d. the lower lid is supplied by the maxillary division
of the trigeminal nerve exclusively
e. there are more meibomian glands in the upper than
lower lids
2. The inferior rectus muscle:
a. is inserted 6.5 cm behind limbus
b. is innervated from its inferior surface
c. is attached to the lower lid
d. is the main depressor of the globe when the eye is
adducted
e. lies inferior to the inferior oblique muscle
3. The ciliary ganglion:
a. is found between the optic nerve and the medial rectus
b. contains sympathetic nerve that supplies the sphincter
pupillae
c. is a parasympathetic relay ganglion for fibers from
the Edinger-Westphal nucleus
d. contains sensory nerve
e. has a motor nerve that goes to the inferior oblique
4. The nasociliary nerve supplies:
a. the sphenoidal sinus
b. ethmoidal sinus
c. cornea
d. lacrimal sac
e. dilator pupillae
5. The cornea:
a. is thicker centrally than peripherally
b. contains 10,000 endothelium cells per square mm at
birth
c.has an acellular collagenous stroma
d. contain Descemet's membrane is produced by the endothelium
e. has a refractive index of 1.38
6. The vitreous:
a. is firmly attached to the pars plana
b. has a high concentration of hyaluronic acid
c. is a hydrogel with a water content of 80%
d. contains calcium in asteroid hyalosis
e. contains collagen which is mainly type II
7. The globe:
a. is closer to the orbital floor than the roof
b. is closer to the lateral wall of the orbital cavity
than to medial wall
c. has a vertical diameter less than the anteroposterior
diameter
d. has an anterior segment which form 1/4 of the circumference
e is least protected laterally
8. The following are true about lacrimal gland:
a. the palpebral part drains into the superior conjunctival
fornix through 12 ducts
b. the palpebral part of the gland is 1/3 the size of
the orbital part
c. excision of palpebral but no the orbital part abolish
the tear secretion by the gland
d. it receives secretomotor nerve from the third cranial
nerve
e. the lymphatic drainage is to parotid gland
9. With regard to the lacrimal drainage system:
a. the upper lacrimal punctum is lateral to the lower
punctum
b. the lacrimal canaliculi are lined by stratified squamous
epithelium
c. nasolacrimal duct is narrowest at the lowest end
d. nasolacrimal duct runs downwards, lateral and forwards
to the anterior part of inferior meatus
e. congenital blockage is due mainly to delay development
of common canaliculus
10. The cells of the retinal pigment epithelium:
a. are of mesenchymal origin
b. are shorter at the fovea than else where in the retina
c. have intracellular melanosomes
d. regenerate visual pigment
e. form the inner outer blood-retina barrier
11. The optic chiasm:
a. forms the floor of the recess of the third ventricle
b. is inferior to the medial root of the olfactory tract
c. has the internal carotid artery as its immediate lateral
relation
d. has the mamillary bodies lying immediately posterior
to it
e. is in close relation to the oculomotor nerve inferiorly
12. True statement about the facial nerve include:
a its nucleus is in the floor of the fourth ventricle
b. its fibres reach the surface of the brain in the cerebellopontine
angle
c. transmits taste fibres for the anterior half of the
tongue
d. gives the deep petrosal nerve as branch to the sphenopalatine
ganglion
e. has a sensory component that supplies the outer ear
13. The following are true about cerebrospinal fluid:
a. it is found in the space between the pia mater and
the arachnoid
b. the normal amount in human being is about 500 ml
c. with the body lying in lateral horizontal position,
the normal intracranial pressure is about 100 ml of water
d. only the lateral ventricle contains choroidal plexus
which secrete cerebrospinal fluid
e. cerebrospinal fluid contains the same concentration
of glucose as the blood
14. The parotid gland:
a. contains a fascial sheath which is innervated by second
cervical nerve
b. receives post-ganglionic parasympathetic nerve from
the otic ganglion
c. contains a duct which opens into the mouth opposite
the upper canine tooth
d. is composed of serous acini which contribute to the
saliva
e. is covered by the massenter
15. In the head and neck:
a. the lymph from the upper lid drains to the parotid
and submandibular lymph nodes
b. the facial nerve comes from the first pharyngeal arch
c. branches of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal
nerve supply the skin of the scalp as far backward as the vertex
d. the veins of the scalp are connected to both the diploic
veins and the intracranial venous sinuses
e. an unilateral cleft lip is a failure of the maxillary
process to fuse with the medial nasal process
16. In the development of the eye: a. the orbit is completed by 10th week of gestation
b. the orbit arises from fusion between the lateral
nasal process and the maxilla
c. the lower eyelids are formed by the maxillary process
d. upper lids arise from fronto-nasal process
e. the nasolacrimal duct arises from the ectoderm of of nasolacrimal groove
17. The following structures are of ectodermal origin:
a. the retina and its retinal pigment epithelium
b. iris stroma
c. the sclera
d. the ciliary muscle
e. the corneal stroma
18. The hyaloid artery:
a. arises from the dorsal ophthalmic artery
b. communicates freely with the choroidal circulation
throughout development
c. regresses after birth
d. Bergmeister's papillae is a remnant
e. forms part of the vascular propria lentis
19. With respect to lens development:
a. the lens first appears at 27 days of gestation
b. it is formed from neural crest cells
c. the lens first appears as a vesicles with a single
layer of epithelial cells
d. Y suture is absent in the embryonic nucleus
e. the adult lens is more spherical than the foetal
20. The following structures arise from the first pharyngeal
arch:
a. common carotid artery
b. mandible
c. facial nerve
d. orbicularis oculi
e. temporalis
21. Glucagon:
a. is secreted by beta-islet cell of pancreas
b. is a polypeptide hormone
c. has a positive cardiac inotropic effect
d. causes gluconeogenesis in the liver
e. causes glycogenolysis in the liver
22. Vergence movement:
a. is more rapid than pursuit movement
b. is required for stereoscopic vision
c. is stimulated by blurred images on the retina
d. is an involuntary eye movement
e. the extent of the movement is determined by the near
point and far point of accommodation
23. During accommodation for near:
a. the spherical aberration of the eye increases
b. the ciliary muscle relaxes
c. the field of vision decreases
d. the amount of light entering the eye increases
e. the thickness of the lens increases
24. In binocular vision:
a. only points on the horopter fall on the corresponding
retinal point
b. points in front of the horopter will stimulate binasal
retina
c. points outside the horopter is perceived doubly
d. the Panum's fusional area is wider in the centre than
the periphery
e. sensory fusion refers to the cortical integration
of images perceived by the two eyes
25. The following are true about entopic phenomenon:
a. it can be produced by cells in the vitreous
b. it can be produced by palpation of the eyeballs
c. the size of one's pupil can be observed with a pinhole
d. asteroid hyalosis causes significant visual disturbance
due to entopic phenomenon
e. Haidinger's brushes are produced by the inner plexiform
layers
26. The retinal pigment epithelium cells:
a. esterify and store excess retinol
b. transport retinol binding protein from blood to subretinal
space
c. are secured laterally to each other by tight junction
d. are independent units and do not communicate electrically
or metabolically with each other
e. dehydrate the subretinal space and create forces binding
themselves to neurosensory retina
27. The intraocular pressure can fluctuate:
a. seasonally
b. diurnally
c. with eye movements
d. in optic neuritis
e. with fluid intake
28. The tear film:
a. contributes to the refractive function of the eye
b. is partly formed from the goblet cells
c. is 100um thick
d. its normal break-up time is 5 to 15 seconds
e. is decreased with topical atropine
29. The human lens:
a. has a higher refractive index in the nucleus than
the cortex
b. contains a higher potassium concentration than the
aqueous
c. contains a higher concentration of sorbitol in diabetic
patient than normal population
d. glucose is metabolised mainly by aerobic glycolysis
e. contains nucleated cells mainly on its posterior surface
30. True statement about dark adaptation include:
a. there is a shift in peak spectral sensitivity from
555 nm to 505 nm with dark adaptation
b. rods are more sensitive than cone during dark adaptation
c. biphasic changes only occur in retina which processes
both rods and cones
d. its takes about 30 seconds in man
e. it is delayed in patient with vitamin A deficiency
31. During phototransduction:
a. hyperpolarisation occurs due to closure of the sodium
channels
b. dark current only occurs in the presence of photoreceptors
stimulation
c. 11-cis-retinal molecules are converted to all-trans-retinal
d. transducin, a G protein converts GDP to GTP
e. 10 photons are required to stimulate a single rod
32. With regard to the blood retina barrier:
a. the outer blood retina is formed by the retinal pigment
epithelium cells and their junctions
b. the basement membrane of the retinal capillaries is
a major component of the inner blood retina barrier
c. the blood retina barrier is typically defective in
the immediate perpapillary region
d. the retinal vascular endothelial cells can actively
transport fluid and anions from the extracellular space of the retina into
the circulation
e. inhalation of 10 % of carbon-dioxide causes rapid
breakdown of the inner blood retinal barrier
33. True statements about the aqueous humour:
a. has a higher lactic acid concentration than in the
plasma
b. the glucose levels is lower than that of the plasma
levels
c. the ascorbic acid concentration is twice that of the
plasma
d. it contains the same concentration of protein as in
the plasma
e. the rate of formation is about 2.5ul/minute
34. True statements about ERG include:
a. it is abnormal in patient with amblyopia
b. it can be performed on anaesthetized patients
c. it is affected by optic neuritis
d. the a wave is produced by the photoreceptors
e. dark adaptation increase the amplitude of the a and
b wave as well as the latency
35. True statements about EOG include:
a. it depends on a normal retinal pigment epithelium
b. it can be easily produced in the anaesthetized patients
c. the maximal dark response exceeds the light response
in normal people
d. it is given in an absolute value in microvolts
e. in Best's disease, EOG is abnormal in the presence
of normal ERG
36. Stretch reflex:
a. is a monosynaptic reflex with a response time of 1
msec
b. is enhanced by impulses from Golgi tendon organ
c. originates in the muscle spindle which sends off impulses
in type Ia nerve fibres
d. is intensified by impulses in the gamma efferent fibres
e. is decreased in lesion of the motor cortex
37. Glycocylated haemoglobin:
a. is absent in the plasma of people without diabetes
mellitus
b. the levels of Hb A1c are a good index of glucose-induced
arteriolar dilatation and consequent damage to renal function in diabetics
c. results from the combination of a HbA and a sugar
d. when measured as HbA1c in plasma gives a more accurate
retrospective estimates of blood sugar levels than other
glycosylated products
e. is increased in diabetic patient with concurrent sickle
cell disease
38. With regard to the autonomic nervous system:
a. the dorsal root ganglia is made up mainly of the cell
bodies of the sympathetic nerves
b. the preganglionic sympathetic fibres are usually longer
than preganglionic parasympathetic fibres
c. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter at the ganglia
of both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
d. botulin toxin blocks acetylcholine receptors
e. hemicholinium blocks the synthesis of acetylcholine
39. The following are true about blood coagulation:
a. heparin inhibits blood coagulation through its interference
with vitamin K metabolism in the liver
b. addition of vitamin K to freshly drawn blood delays
clotting
c. thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
d. platelets are essential for blood clot
e. vitamin K is responsible for the production of factors
II, VII, IX and X
40. In the inner ear:
a. endolymph is found in the tunnel of Corti
b. the lowest tone that be heard is 300 Hz
c. the perilymph has the same composition as the cerebrospinal
fluid
d. the longer fibers of the basilar membrane are found
at the apex
e. linear acceleration is detected by maculae of the
utricles
41. Regarding interferon:
a. it is a virus specific molecules
b. it acts by neutralizing exotoxin
c. it enhances the histocompatibility antigen on cell
surface and thereby activate the T cells
d. it exerts its effect by integrating itself with the
DNA of virus infected cells
e. it can inhibit cell division in normal tissue
42. Gram negative rods that are known to cause ocular
diseases include:
a. Proteus vulgaris b. Serratia marcescans c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa d. Moraxella lacunata e. Haemophilus influenza
43. The following are true:
a. fusidic acid is used in staphylococcus aureus infection
b. intravenous vancomycin is useful in treating post-operative
endophthalmitis
c. rifampicin is only effective against tuberculosis
d. gentamicin is effective against Gram positive coccus
e. penicillin is effect against Gram positive coccus,
Gram negative bacilli and coccus
44. Endotoxins:
a. is involved in botulism
b. elicit an antibody response which may protect the
host from future attack
c. is produced mainly by Gram positive bacterial
d. can often survive autoclaving
e. is found in the vesicle of bacterial cytoplasm
45 . The following virus are associated with human cancer:
a. herpes zoster
b. Epstein-Barr virus
c. human papillovirus
d. hepatitis type A
e. human immunodeficiency virus
46. Following an acute inflammation, the following may
occur:
a. complete resolution
b. abscess formation
c. chronic inflammation
d. scar tissue formation
e. loss of function
47 Acetazolamide causes the following:
a. metabolic acidosis
b. hyperkalaemia
c. hypernatraemia
d. renal calculi
e. hypercalcaemia
48. The effects of topically applied anticholinesterase
on the eye include:
a. conjunctival hyperaemia
b. raised intraocular pressure
c. ciliary muscle contraction
d. sphincter pupillae muscle relaxation
e. retraction of the upper lids
49. Impaired accommodation occurs with:
a phenothiazine
b. topical pilocarpine
c. topical atropine
d. topical phenylephrine
e. topical cocaine
50. True statements about chloroquine include:
a. is safer than hydroxychloroquine at equivalent dose
b. can cause corneal deposition
c. causes posterior subcapsular cataract
d. chloroquine is bound to the melanin of the retinal
pigment epithelium
e. causes reversible toxic maculopathy
51. At the adrenergic synapse, the concentration of adrenaline
in synaptic cleft:
a. increased by cocaine which inhibit reuptake of adrenaline
b. decreased by MAO (monoamine oxidase) - inhibitors
c. controlled chiefly by the activity of the enzyme COMT
d. increased by noradrenaline receptor blockers
e. increased by partial agonist of noradrenaline receptors
52. True statements about the nucleic acid include:
a. contains purine and pyrimidine which are bound together
by covalent bonds
b. there is always an equal concentration of purine and
pyrimidine
c. in RNA, thymine is replaced by uracil
d. introns is more common than exons on the DNA
e. the histones mark the excision site
53. In allergic reaction:
a. Arthus reaction is a type IV reaction
b. anaphylaxis occurs in patients who have had no previous
exposure to the offending substance
c. contact dermatitis is a type IV reaction
d. positive Mantoux test is a type III reaction
e. urticaria is a type II reaction
54. With regard to immunoglobulin A:
a. it is the heaviest immunoglobulin
b. it is the first immunoglobulin to be produced when
the body is invaded by viruses
c. it is secreted by the lacrimal gland
d. it is secreted in the breast milk
e. it is an effective defense against gonococcus
55. The following are true about the viruses:
a. they contain either RNA or DNA nuclei acids only
b. HIV virus is a DNA virus
c. cytomegalovirus is a DNA virus
d. all herpes viruses are sensitive to acyclovir
e. viral replication within the host cells is inhibited
by interferons
56. Recognized virulence factors in bacteria include:
a. Ig A-proteases
b. beta lactamases
c. gonococcal pili
d. streptococcal M protein
e. the capsular polysaccharides in Haemophilus influenzae
57. The following enzymes on the left are responsible
for the synthesis of the neurotransmitters on the right:
a. monoamine oxidase: noradrenaline
b. cholinesterase: acetylcholine
c. catechol-o-methyl transferase: dopamine
d. dopa decarboxylase: adrenaline
e. glutamic acid decarboxylase: gamma-aminobutyric
acid (GABA)
58. The following are true about the DNA in mitochondria:
a. they are found in the ovum and not the spermatozoan
b. they have their own genome
c. they are expressed in muscle cells
d. an affected male with mitochondrial disorder can pass
it on to his daughter only
e. they are responsible for coding enzymes used in oxidation
59. The following are true :
a. the HLA proteins are found within the cytoplasm of
the cells
b. HLA class I antigens are expressed on all cells with
nuclei
c. HLA class II antigens presents the virus infected
cells to cytotoxic T lymphocytes
d. HLA genes are found on chromosome 6
e. HLA tissue typing is carried out in all forms of transplantation
to prevent rejection
60. True statements about chromosome include:
a. there are 23 pairs of autosomal chromosome traits
b. 23 chromosomes are found in germinal cells
d. in female only one chromosome is activated
c. the Barr body is due to inactivated X chromosome
e. Klinefelter's syndrome result from an extra X chromosome
in male