1. In fractures of the orbit:
a. pure blow out fractures of the floor are commonest
b. trauma to the infraorbital nerve causes anaesthesia to
the lips and gum
c. enophthalmos on initial examination indicates a large
fracture fo the floor
d. early surgical intervention is indicated in the presence
of diplopia and infraorbital anaesthesia
e. marked orbital and lid swelling is common following
repair of blow-out fractures
2. In papilloedema:
a. axonal distension occurs as the first sign
b. it takes 24-48 hours for early papilloedema to occur
and one week for it to develop fully
c. is usually asymmetric and greater on the side of a
supratentorial lesion
d. a fully developed papilloedema fully resolves in four
weeks with adequate treatment
e. it can be associated with sudden visual loss after
sudden decrease in systolic perfusion pressure
3. Regarding blow out fractures:
a. forced duction test is useful in differentiating tissue
prolapse from muscle shortening
b. the inferior oblique is more prone to nerve paresis than
the inferior rectus
c. surgery should only be performed after documentation
that there is no further worsening of ocular motility
d. mydriasis is more likely to be seen in medial wall
fractures than floor fractures
e. enophthalmos due to muscle fibrosis and shortening is
difficult to correct
4. Retinoblastoma:
a. is caused by a genetic abnormality on chromosome
14q13
b. is inherited with a visible chromosomal defect in most
cases
c. is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
d. is associated with esterase D deficiency in most case
e. is due to somatic mutation in most cases
5. Retinoblastoma tends to present with:
a. leukocoria
b. squint
c. microphthalmia
d. cataract
e. a painful red eye
6. Risk factors for metastatic retinoblastoma are:
a. a short optic nerve stump at enucleation ie. less
than 5 mm
b. a large tumour size
c. optic nerve invasion of any degree
d. choroidal invasion of any degree
e. anterior segment involvement
7. Coat's disease:
a. tends to occur in females
b. usually presents before the age of four years
c. is usually bilateral
d. is inherited as an autosomal dominant fashion
e. is indistinguishable from retinoblastoma on
ultrasonography
8. Birdshot choroidopathy:
a. tends to be unilateral
b. is associated with HLA A-29 antigen
c. is associated with cystoid macular oedema
d. can be treated with steroids
e. rarely occurs after the age of 50
9. Acute multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy:
a. usually has a good visual prognosis
b. usually occurs in elderly individuals over the age of 50
c. may be unilateral or bilateral
d. can be associated with cerebral vasculitis
e. can cause a serious retinal detachment
10. Sympathetic ophthalmia:
a. is best prevented by early enucleation of the
traumatized eye
b. should be treated by enucleation of the exciting eye
c. usually develops between 2 weeks and 3 months in
most cases
d. causes multiple pinpoint hyperfluorescence spots in
angiography
e. can be prevented by prophylactic steroids