Past MCQs for Paper two
1. Superior oblique palsy:
a. 25% congenital
b. bilateral causes has V esotropia
c. bilateral has more than 10 degrees of excyclotorsion
d. hypertropia increases on gaze to opposite side


2. The following are true about inferior oblique muscle operion:

a. ipsilateral myectomy is performed for fourth nerve palsy
b. myectomy is more effective than recession
c. haematoma is common


3. Ciliary body melanoma:

a. has a better prognosis than choroidal melanoma
b. may be amelanotic
c. more radiosensitive than choridal melanoma


4. Cataraacts are asscoaited with:

a. Lowe's syndrome
b. Usher's syndrome
c. Wilson's syndrome
d. Klipper-Field's syndrome
e. pseudoxanthoma elasticum


5. Syphilis:

a. teritary syphilis causes inflammation of zonules, lens and retina
b. commonest cause of interstitial keratitis


6. High AC/A ratio:

a. phosphholine iodide decreases it
b. increase iwth age
c. rrequires fixed working distance for measurement
d. can be corrected by executivd bifocal
e. congenital esotropia is associated with high ratio


7. Laser trabeculoplasty:

a. is successful in 80% of cases
b. may induce cataract
c. can reduce the pressure in the other eye
d. can increase field loss
e. casues fall in pressure in 2 hours


8. Acute mullfifocal placoid punctaate epitheliopathy:

a. is usually unilateral
b. on fluorrescein angiography, masking is seen in the initial stages
c. is associated iwth increased calcium concentration in the serum
d. improves spontaneouslly


9. Malignant melanoma of chorid have a worse prognosis with:

a. patients older than 70 years old
b. icnreaseing size
c. scleral extension
d. anergy to BCG
e. loss of humoural antiobodies with tumour


10.In optic nerve trauma:

a. intracranial part is most commonly affected
b. optic atrophy is common


11. Dissociated vertical deviation:

a. commonly bilateral and asymmetrical
b. the covered eye goes up and intorts and rapidly comes down on removal of cover
c. associated with latent nystagmus
d. assocaited with heterotropia


12. Optic disc ppit:

a. associated iwth retinal serous dtachment in 10% of cases
b. inferonasal typical but can be anywhere


13. SF6:

a. is highly lipid soluble
b. does not affect ERG
c. causes posterior subcapsular cataract


14. Idiopathic macular hole:

a. commoner in females
b. may close spontaneously
c. 90% biolateral
d. can occur with posterior vitreous detachment


15. Advantages of MRI over CT scan:

a. can be used in pacemaker
b.can be used to identify bony lesion
c. less radiatioon
d. all axis without moving patient


16. Retinal breeeeaks due to blunt trauma:

a. usually forms 7 days later
b. pigment epithleial proliferaiton 10 days post injury
. frequently associated with large oval breaks in quadrant opposite to impact
d. anterior dialysis is commonlly superonasal quadrant
e. arise due to compression of vitreous face


17. In rod monochromatism:

a. cones are totally absent
b. ERG at 30Hz is flt
c. dark adapted eye will have a cone response


18. Retinoschsis:

a. is commonly bilateral
b. is nearly always present in nasl quadrnat
c. juvenile type is frequently associated with macular schisis
d. split present in outer plexiform layer
e. inner layer breaks require treatment


19. Wernicke's encephalopathy:

a. large doses of vitamin B12 is useful
b. patients develop long-standing epilepsy
c. lesion is in the wall of the fourth ventricle
d. only occur in the alcoholic
e. puillary reflexes and extraocular muscles are affected


20. Primary hyperplastic persistent vitreous:

a. unilateral in otherwise healthy child
b. presents in neonatal period
c. causes cataract
d. causes angle closure glaucoma
e. duje to persistence of secondary and tertiary vitreous


21. Posterior inferior cerebellary artery thrombosis:

a. causes infarction of lateral medulla
b. painful trigeminal area on the same side
c. Horner's syndorme


22. Spasmus nutans:

a. fine jerky nystagmus usually monocular
b. rarely resolves spontaneously
c. present between 2 and 12 months of age


23. Aniridia may be associated with:

a. short arm of chromosome 11 deletion
b. naterior polar cataract
c. pannus
c. hypernephroma
c. optic disc hypoplasia


24. Damage to the optic nerve from head injury:

a. is usually in the intracranial part
b. result in optic atrophy nasally
c. usually causes an afferent pupillary defect in the other eye
d. cuases an altitudinal field defect


25. V phenomenon occurs in:

a. superior rectus weakness
b. superior oblqieu wekaness
c. too high insertion of medial wall
d. may be treated by sagitalisation of inferior oblique in appropriate cases
e. is always pathological


26. In severe diabetic retinopathy:

a. absence of cotton wool spots
b. increased foveal avascular zone
 
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